DO
NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
|
||||
TEST
BOOKLET SERIES
|
||||
LEADERS IAS ACADEMY
KARAIKUDI –www.leadersiasacademy.com
9962048117
, 9787311067
|
||||
Time Allowed: Two hours
|
Maximum marks: 200
|
|||
Instructions
1.
IMMEDIATELY
AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF
SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2.
|
Encode clearly the test booklet series A,B, C or D as the case may be in
the appropriate place in the Answer sheet.
3. You have to enter your roll
Number on the test booklet
in the Box provided
alongside. Do not write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains
80 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want
to mark on the answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one
correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your
responses ONLY on the separate Answer sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal
marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark
in the answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet you have
to fill in some particulars in the Answer sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your admission certificate.
8. After you have completed filling
in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are
appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
I.
There are four alternatives for
the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third (0-33) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deduced as penalty.
II.
If a candidate gives more than
one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question. If it has a penality.
III.
If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
DO NOT
OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
LEADERS IAS ACADEMY
the alchemist
1. Consider
the following
1.
The world GDP declined by 1% in 2013 –
2014. But our GDP growth rate was
estimated at 7.2%
2.
The projections of GDP growth rate for 2013– 14 are around 9% by ADB, IMF, the World Bank and the Govt. of India
3.
The agricultural and allied sectors where
growth rate was estimated to be -0.2% over 2013 – 014.
4.
During 11th plan period
agricultural could growth at only 2.1% annually whereas, the economy on the whole recorded a high rate
of growth of 7.6%.
With
reference to the above statements which is not correct regarding Indian economy
a.
2 only
b.
1 only
c.
1 and 4 only
d.
None
of these
2. Consider
the following
1.
India is a developed economy
2.
Most of the population are under the
category of informal sector
3.
Imbalance between various sectors of Indian
economy including primary, secondary and tertiary sectors.
With
reference to the above statements choose the correct answer.
a.
1 only
b.
2only
c.
2
and 3 only
d.
All of these
3. Consider
the following
1.
Madhya Pradesh has the highest production
of Soya bean India.
2.
India holds third position in the world in the production of
sugarcane and sugar
3.
India contributes about 13% to the world
vegetable production.
Which of the following statements are
correct
a.
1 only
b.
1 and 2 only
c.
1
and 3 only
d.
All of these
4.
Consider the following
1.
Shahnawaz committee (1954)
2.
Kuljaru committee (1962)
3.
Khanna committee (1998)
4.
Wanchoo committee (1968)
With reference to the above committees
which one is not associated with Rail Security?
a.
4 only
b.
3 only
c.
1 and 3 only
d.
None
of these
5. Consider
the following
1.
NABARD established on July 12, 1982 is the
apex financing institution for agriculture and rural development.
2.
The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
1995 - 96 (RIDF) is operated by NABARD with funds raised from a scheduled
commercial banks to the extent of their short fall in agriculture lending.
With
respect to above statements which are correct answer with using codes given
below.
a.
2 only
b.
1 only
i. Both correct
c.
Neither 1 nor 2
6. “A
country is one which per capita real income is low when compared with the per
capita real income of USA, Canada, Australia and Western Europe”. It indicates
which one of the following type of nation by the categorization of United
Nation Organisation.
a.
Developed country
b.
Developing Nation
c.
Under
developed country
d.
Under growing country
7. If
a person does not contribute anything in the production process or in other
words, if he can be removed from the work without affecting the productivity
and also the marginal productivity of such unemployed persons is zero. It is
called as
a.
Under employment
b.
Lower employment
c.
Disguised
unemployment
d.
Unemployment
8. Consider
the following
1.
A lack of housing facility
2.
Migration of rural youth towards cities
3.
Limited job opportunity
4.
Excessive population pressure in
agriculture
With
respect to above factors select the correct answer regarding the reasons for
urban poverty.
a.
2 and 3 only
b.
1,2
and 3
c.
1 and 4 only
d.
All of these
9. Who
is the chairman of expert group constituted by the planning commission to
recommend the methodology for identification of BPL families in urban areas?
a.
Prof.
S.R.Hashim
b.
Prof.Rajini Kothari
c.
Prof.Khan
d.
Dr.Vijai Singh
10.
Consider the following
1. India
is the second highest tobacco producing country in the world.
2. India
is world’s fifth largest producer of eggs, sixth largest producer of fish and
second in inland fisheries.
3. India
occupies first rank in the production of cauliflower, second in onion and third
in cabbage in the world.
Select the correct answer using codes given
below.
a.
2 and 3 are correct
b.
1 and 2
are correct
c.
1 and 3 are correct
d.
All
of these
11.
Which of the following schemes was launched
in December 2001 to ameliorate the conditions of the urban slum dwellers living
below the poverty line without adequate shelter?
a.
NREGPB
b.
VAMBAY
c.
IRDP
d.
TRYSEM
12.
Which of the following programme was
started on an experimental basis in 1978 – 79?
For this purpose of this programme to provide assistance to rural poor
families living below the poverty line.
This programme was launched in the whole country on October 2 1980.
a.
IRDP
b.
NREGPB
c.
VAMBAY
d.
TRYSEM
13.
Consider the following
1. Stabilizing
population is an imperative requirement for promoting sustainable development.
2. The
main problem concerned in the population stabilization in the short term
perspective is the high levels of unmet needs for contraception in high
fertility states of UP, Bihar, Rajasthan and MP.
3. The
long term objective of national population policy 2000 is to achieve a stable
population by 2055.
With
respect to population problem in the Indian context which one of the above
statements is incorrect?
a.
1
only
b.
3
only
c.
2 only
d.
None of these
14.
With respect to Indian Context, the current
high population growth rate is due to
1.
The large size population in the
reproductive age group (estimated distribution 60%)
2.
Higher Fertility due to unmet need for
contraception (estimated contribution 20%)
3.
The high wanted fertility due to prevailing
high IMR (estimated contribution 20%)
4. All of the above
15.
Which of the following scheme is to promote
and support establishment of new micro and small enterprises through hand
holding of potential first generation entrepreneurs?
a.
RGUMY
b.
TRYSEM
c.
NRHM
d.
NRY
No comments:
Post a Comment